A 10-year-old boy, known to has a nephritic syndrome. Presented with a history of right thigh pain with inability to bear weight for a one-month duration, with a one-week history of fever. Initial workup showed WBC 7.4 x109/L with 72% Neutrophils, ESR of 74 mm/h and serum C-reactive protein 182 mg/dl and Blood culture grew MRSA with full sensitivity, MRI demonstrated right hip septic arthritis with effusion and right femur osteomyelitis. Patient treated with intravenous vancomycin then soon shifted to oral clindamycin with smooth clinical improvement. 1)What factors would you consider in administering drugs to this patient? 2)What other diseases is MRSA capable of causing? 3)What complications would you anticipate in this patient due not weight bearing? 4)What role does the patient’s age play? Would you treat an adult differently?
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